CompTIA Server+ SK0-005 Real Exam Questions and Answers FREE Updated on Dec 06, 2025
SK0-005 Ultimate Study Guide - Prep4SureReview
Preparing for the CompTIA SK0-005 exam requires a combination of theoretical knowledge and practical experience. CompTIA offers various resources to help candidates prepare for the exam, such as study guides, practice exams, and instructor-led training. It is also recommended that candidates have at least 18 to 24 months of experience working with server infrastructure before taking the exam.
CompTIA Server+ Certification is recognized globally and is highly valued by employers. It is a prerequisite for many job roles such as server administrator, system administrator, network administrator, and IT manager. CompTIA Server+ Certification Exam certification also provides a foundation for advanced certifications such as CompTIA Cloud+, CompTIA Security+, and CompTIA Linux+.
CompTIA Server+ certification exam is a valuable certification for IT professionals who work with server technology. SK0-005 exam covers a wide range of topics related to server administration, and the certification is recognized worldwide as an industry standard. Whether you are an experienced server administrator or just starting your career in IT, the CompTIA Server+ certification is a great way to validate your skills and improve your job prospects.
NEW QUESTION # 214
A datacenter technician is attempting to troubleshoot a server that keeps crashing. The server runs normally for approximately five minutes, but then it crashes. After restoring the server to operation, the same cycle repeats.
The technician confirms none of the configurations have changed, and the load on the server is steady from power-on until the crash. Which of the following will MOST likely resolve the issue?
- A. Reseating any expansion cards in the server
- B. Restoring the server from the latest full backup
- C. Reinstalling the heat sink with new thermal paste
- D. Replacing the failing hard drive
Answer: C
Explanation:
The most likely solution to resolve the issue of the server crashing after running normally for approximately five minutes is to reinstall the heat sink with new thermal paste. A heat sink is a device that dissipates heat from a component, such as a processor or a graphics card, by transferring it to a cooling medium, such as air or liquid. A heat sink is usually attached to the component using thermal paste, which is a substance that fills the gaps between the heat sink and the component and improves thermal conductivity. Thermal paste can degrade over time and lose its effectiveness, resulting in overheating and performance issues. If a server crashes after running for a short period of time, it may indicate that the processor is overheating due to insufficient cooling.
To resolve this issue, the technician should remove the heat sink, clean the old thermal paste, apply new thermal paste, and reinstall the heat sink.
NEW QUESTION # 215
A server has experienced several component failures. To minimize downtime, the server administrator wants to replace the components while the server is running.
Which of the following can MOST likely be swapped out while the server is still running? (Select TWO).
- A. The cache
- B. The hard drive
- C. The GPU
- D. The RAM
- E. The power supply
- F. The CPU
Answer: B,C
NEW QUESTION # 216
An administrator is investigating a physical server mat will not Boot into the OS. The server has three hard drives configured in a RAID 5 array. The server passes POST, out the OS does not load. The administrator verities the CPU and RAM are Doth seated correctly and checks the dual power supplies. The administrator then verifies all the BIOS settings are correct and connects a bootable USB drive in the server, and the OS loads correctly. Which of the following is causing the issue?
- A. RAID 5 requires four drives
- B. There are multiple failed hard drives.
- C. The CPU has failed.
- D. There are mismatched RAM modules.
- E. The page file is too small.
Answer: B
Explanation:
If a server has three hard drives configured in a RAID 5 array, it means that the data is striped across all three drives with parity information. RAID 5 can tolerate one drive failure without losing data, but not two or more.
If there are multiple failed hard drives, the RAID 5 array will become corrupted and the OS will not load. The other options are not likely to cause the issue, as the server passes POST, the CPU and RAM are seated correctly, the BIOS settings are correct, and the OS loads from a bootable USB drive. RAID 5 does not require four drives, it can work with three or more.References:https://www.technewstoday.com/what-is-a-raid-
5/
NEW QUESTION # 217
A Linux server was recently updated. Now, the server stops during the boot process with a blank screen and an £s> prompt.
When of the following is the MOST likely cause of this issue?
- A. The system is booting to a USB flash drive
- B. The UEFI boot was interrupted by a missing Linux boot file
- C. The BIOS could not find a bootable hard disk
- D. The BIOS firmware needs to be upgraded
Answer: B
Explanation:
The most likely cause of this issue is that the UEFI boot was interrupted by a missing Linux boot file, such as grub.cfg or vmlinuz, which are essential for loading the Linux kernel and booting the system.
The £s> prompt indicates that the system entered into UEFI Shell mode, which is a command-line interface for troubleshooting UEFI boot issues. The administrator can use UEFI Shell commands to locate and restore the missing boot file or change the boot order. Verified References: [UEFI Shell Guide]
NEW QUESTION # 218
A storage engineer responds to an alarm on a storage array and finds the battery on the RAID controller needs to be replaced. However, the replacement part will not be available for 14 days. The engineer needs to identify the impact of the failed battery on the system. Which of the following best describes the impact?
- A. The read and write performance will be impacted.
- B. The performance will not be impacted.
- C. The write performance will be impacted.
- D. The read performance will be impacted.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
A RAID controller battery is used to protect the data in the cache memory of the controller in case of a power failure. The cache memory allows the controller to improve the write performance by buffering the data and writing it to the disk in an optimized way. However, if the battery fails, the controller will switch to write-through mode, which means it will write the data directly to the disk without caching. This will reduce the write performance and increase the latency of the system
NEW QUESTION # 219
A technician is configuring a server that requires secure remote access. Which of the following ports should the technician use?
- A. 0
- B. 1
- C. 2
- D. 3
Answer: D
Explanation:
SSH port 22 for secure remote access and 443 is https for encrypted website browsing.
NEW QUESTION # 220
An administrator is configuring a host-based firewall tor a server. The server needs to allow SSH, FTP, and LDAP traffic. Which of the following ports must be configured so this traffic will be allowed? (Select THREE).
- A. 0
- B. 1
- C. 2
- D. 3
- E. 4
- F. 5
- G. 6
- H. 7
Answer: A,F,G
Explanation:
These are the port numbers that must be configured on a host-based firewall for a server that needs to allow SSH, FTP, and LDAP traffic. A port number is a numerical identifier that specifies a communication endpoint for a network protocol or an application. A host-based firewall is a software tool that monitors and controls incoming and outgoing network traffic on a single host based on predefined rules. SSH (Secure Shell) is a protocol that allows secure remote access and file transfer over an encrypted connection. The default port number for SSH is 22. FTP (File Transfer Protocol) is a protocol that allows transferring files between hosts over a network connection. The default port number for FTP is 21. LDAP (Lightweight Directory Access Protocol) is a protocol that allows accessing and managing directory services over a network connection. The default port number for LDAP is 389. References: https://www.howtogeek.com/190014/virtualization-basics- understanding-techniques-and-fundamentals/ https://www.howtogeek.com/220152/what-is-the-difference- between-127.0.0.1-and-0.0.0.0/ https://www.howtogeek.com/428483/what-is-end-to-end-encryption-and-why- does-it-matter/
NEW QUESTION # 221
When configuring networking on a VM, which of the following methods would allow multiple VMs to share the same host IP address?
- A. NAT
- B. Host only
- C. Bridged
- D. vSwitch
Answer: A
Explanation:
https://www.virtualbox.org/manual/ch06.html
NEW QUESTION # 222
A server is performing slowly, and users are reporting issues connecting to the application on that server.
Upon investigation, the server administrator notices several unauthorized services running on that server that are successfully communicating to an external site. Which of the following are MOST likely causing the issue?
(Choose two.)
- A. Unnecessary services are disabled on the server
- B. Adware is installed on the users' devices
- C. The server is infected with a virus
- D. Intrusion detection is enabled on the network
- E. The firewall rule for the server is misconfigured
- F. SELinux is enabled on the server
Answer: C,F
Explanation:
Explanation
The server is infected with a virus and SELinux is enabled on the server are most likely causing the issue of unauthorized services running on the server. A virus is a type of malicious software that infects a system and performs unwanted or harmful actions, such as creating, modifying, deleting, or executing files. A virus can also create backdoors or open ports on a system to allow remote access or communication with external sites.
SELinux (Security-Enhanced Linux) is a security module for Linux systems that enforces mandatory access control policies on processes and files. SELinux can prevent unauthorized services from running on a server by restricting their access to resources based on their security context. However, SELinux can also cause problems if it is not configured properly or if it conflicts with other security tools.
NEW QUESTION # 223
A server that recently received hardware upgrades has begun to experience random BSOD conditions. Which of the following are likely causes of the issue? (Choose two.)
- A. Uninitialized disk
- B. Faulty memory
- C. Incorrectly seated memory
- D. Overallocated memory
- E. Data partition error
- F. Incompatible disk speed
Answer: B,C
Explanation:
Faulty memory and incorrectly seated memory are likely causes of the random BSOD conditions on the server. Memory is one of the most common hardware components that can cause BSOD (Blue Screen of Death) errors on Windows systems. BSOD errors occur when the system encounters a fatal error that prevents it from continuing to operate normally. Memory errors can be caused by faulty or incompatible memory modules that have physical defects or manufacturing flaws. Memory errors can also be caused by incorrectly seated memory modules that are not properly inserted or locked into the memory slots on the motherboard.
This can result in loose or poor connections between the memory modules and the motherboard.
NEW QUESTION # 224
A remote physical server is unable to communicate to the network through the available NICs, which were misconfigured. However, the server administrator is still able to configure the server remotely. Which of the following connection types is the server administrator using to access the server?
- A. Virtual administrator console
- B. Out-of-band management
- C. RDP connection
- D. Local KVM setup
- E. Crash cart access
Answer: B
Explanation:
The connection type that the server administrator is using to access the server remotely is out-of-band management. Out-of-band management is a method of accessing and controlling a server through a dedicated network interface or port that is separate from the regular data network. Out-of-band management allows administrators to perform tasks such as rebooting, configuring, troubleshooting, or updating a server even if the server is offline or unresponsive through the regular network. Out-of-band management can use protocols such as IPMI, iLO, DRAC, or BMC. Reference: https://www.ibm.com/cloud/learn/out-of-band-management
NEW QUESTION # 225
A technician is trying to determine the reason why a Linux server is not communicating on a network. The returned network configuration is as follows:
eth0: flags=4163<UP, BROADCAST,RUNNING,MULTICAST> mtu 1500
inet 127.0.0.1 network 255.255.0.0 broadcast 127.0.0.1
Which of the following BEST describes what is happening?
- A. The server is configured to use DHCP, but the DHCP server is sending an incorrect MTU setting
- B. The server is configured to use DHCP on a network that does not have a DHCP server
- C. The server is configured to use DHCP, but the DHCP server is sending an incorrect subnet mask
- D. The server is configured to use DHCP on a network that has multiple scope options
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
The reason why the Linux server is not communicating on a network is that it is configured to use DHCP on a network that does not have a DHCP server. DHCP (Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol) is a protocol that allows a client device to obtain an IP address and other network configuration parameters from a DHCP server automatically. However, if there is no DHCP server on the network, the client device will not be able to obtain a valid IP address and will assign itself a link-local address instead. A link-local address is an IP address that is only valid within a local network segment and cannot be used for communication outside of it. A link-local address has a prefix of 169.254/16 in IPv4 or fe80::/10 in IPv6. In this case, the Linux server has assigned itself a link-local address of 127.0.0.1, which is also known as the loopback address. The loopback address is used for testing and troubleshooting purposes and refers to the device itself. It cannot be used for communication with other devices on the network.
NEW QUESTION # 226
A server recently started sending error messages about running out of memory while in use. After a maintenance period during which more memory was added, the server is still unable to consistently remain powered on. Which of the following should the technician check first?
- A. Memory speed
- B. Memory slots
- C. Boot order
- D. Memory compatibility
Answer: D
Explanation:
When troubleshooting memory-related errors, it's essential to consider several key factors:
* Memory Compatibility: Memory modules must match the specifications supported by the motherboard (e.g., DDR4 vs. DDR5, ECC vs. non-ECC, buffered vs. unbuffered). Using incompatible RAM can cause boot failures, crashes, or instability.
* Memory Speed: While RAM speed mismatches can affect performance, they typically do not cause a server to fail to power on. Most systems automatically adjust to the slowest module.
* Memory Slots: Incorrect installation or damaged slots could be an issue, but the priority is to check compatibility first.
* Boot Order: This setting controls the sequence in which devices boot the OS, which is unrelated to memory-related power issues.
Since the server remains unstable after adding memory, the most likely issue is an incompatibility with the motherboard. The first step is to verify whether the newly installed RAM meets the server's hardware requirements.
Reference: CompTIA Server+ SK0-005 Official Textbook, Chapter 4 - Server Components and Troubleshooting
NEW QUESTION # 227
A systems administrator needs to configure a new server and external storage for a new production application environment. Based on end-user specifications, the new solution needs to adhere to the following basic requirements:
1. The OS must be installed in a separate disk partition. In case of hard drive failure, it cannot be affected.
2. Application data IOPS performance is a must.
3. Data availability is a high priority, even in the case of multiple hard drive failures.
Which of the following are the BEST options to comply with the user requirements? (Choose three.)
- A. Use a single JBOD for OS and application data.
- B. Use SATA hard drives for the data application array.
- C. Configure RAID 1 for the application data.
- D. Install the OS on a RAID 1 array.
- E. Install the OS on a RAID 0 array.
- F. Configure RAID 5 for the application data.
- G. Use SSD hard drives for the data application array.
Answer: C,D,G
Explanation:
RAID 5 doesn't support multiple drive failure.
NEW QUESTION # 228
A technician is configuring a server rack that will hold ten blade servers.
Which of the following safety concerns should be observed? (Select three).
- A. UPS power requirements
- B. Cable management
- C. Separate circuits for power
- D. Floor load limitations
- E. PDU installation
- F. Proper lifting techniques
- G. Power connector type
- H. Rack balancing
- I. KVM placement
Answer: D,F,H
Explanation:
When configuring a server rack, it's important to consider:
A: Floor load limitations: Server racks can be extremely heavy, especially when filled with equipment like blade servers. It is crucial to ensure that the floor can handle the load to avoid structural damage or failure.
B: Rack balancing: Properly distributing the weight in a server rack is important for stability. Heavier equipment should generally be placed at the bottom to prevent the rack from becoming top-heavy and risking a tip-over.
C: Proper lifting techniques: Using correct lifting techniques when placing servers into a rack is vital to prevent personal injury.
NEW QUESTION # 229
Users are able to connect to the wireless network, but they are unable to access the internet. The network administrator verifies connectivity to all network devices, and there are no ISP outages. The server administrator removes the old address leases from the active leases pool, which allows users to access the internet. Which of the following is most likely causing the internet issue?
- A. The DHCP scope options are misconfigured.
- B. THe DHCP exclusion needs to be removed.
- C. The DHCP lease times are too short.
- D. The DHCP reservations need to be configured.
- E. The DHCP scope is full.
Answer: E
Explanation:
The most likely cause of the internet issue is B. The DHCP scope is full.
A DHCP scope is a range of IP addresses that a DHCP server can assign to DHCP clients on a network. A DHCP scope has a start address and an end address, and it can also have some excluded addresses that are not available for lease. A DHCP scope can have various options, such as subnet mask, default gateway, DNS server, etc., that are applied to the DHCP clients along with the IP address. A DHCP scope also has a lease time, which is the duration that a DHCP client can use an IP address before renewing it or releasing it. A DHCP scope can have reservations, which are fixed IP addresses that are assigned to specific DHCP clients based on their MAC addresses12 If a DHCP scope is full, it means that there are no more IP addresses available for lease in the scope. This can happen if the number of DHCP clients exceeds the number of IP addresses in the scope, or if the lease time is too long and the IP addresses are not released or reused frequently enough. If a DHCP scope is full, any new or existing DHCP clients that request an IP address from the DHCP server will not receive one, and they will not be able to access the network or the internet12 In this scenario, users are able to connect to the wireless network, but they are unable to access the internet.
The network administrator verifies connectivity to all network devices, and there are no ISP outages. The server administrator removes the old address leases from the active leases pool, which allows users to access the internet. This indicates that the DHCP scope is full, and that removing the old leases frees up some IP addresses for lease in the scope. Therefore, option B is the most likely cause of the internet issue.
NEW QUESTION # 230
Which of the following is the MOST secure method to access servers located in remote branch offices?
- A. Use a Telnet connection.
- B. Use a role-based access policy.
- C. Use a password complexity policy.
- D. Use an MFAout-of-band solution.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
This is the most secure method to access servers located in remote branch offices because MFA stands for multi-factor authentication, which requires users to provide more than one piece of evidence to prove their identity. An out-of-band solution means that one of the factors is delivered through a separate channel, such as a phone call, a text message, or an email. This adds an extra layer of security and prevents unauthorized access even if a password is compromised. References:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/active-directory/authentication/concept-mfa-howitworks
NEW QUESTION # 231
An administrator discovers a Bash script file has the following permissions set in octal notation;
777
Which of the following is the MOST appropriate command to ensure only the root user can modify and execute the script?
- A. chmod u=rwx
- B. chmod go-rw>:
- C. chmod u+wx
- D. chmod g-rwx
Answer: B
Explanation:
chmod is a command-line tool that changes the permissions of files and directories in Linux and Unix systems. chmod go-rwx means to remove read, write, and execute permissions for group and other users from a file or directory. This can ensure only the root user can modify and execute the script, since root user has full access to all files and directories regardless of their permissions. Reference: https://linux.die.net/man/1/chmod
NEW QUESTION # 232
A server administrator has been asked to implement a password policy that will help mitigate the chance of a successful brute-force attack. Which of the following password policies should the administrator implement first?
- A. Complexity
- B. Minimum age
- C. Lockout
- D. Length
Answer: D
Explanation:
Password length is the first password policy that the administrator should implement to help mitigate the chance of a successful brute-force attack. A brute-force attack is a method of guessing passwords by trying all possible combinations of characters until the correct one is found. The longer the password, the more combinations there are, and the more time and resources it takes to crack it. Therefore, password length is a key factor in password strength and security.
NEW QUESTION # 233
A systems administrator notices a newly added server cannot see any of the LUNs on the SAN. The SAN switch and the local HBA do not display any link lights. Which of the following is most likely the issue?
- A. A single-mode fiber cable is used in place of multimode.
- B. The zoning on the fiber switch is wrong.
- C. The switchport is on the wrong virtual SAN.
- D. The HBA driver needs to be installed on the server.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
The most likely issue that prevents the newly added server from seeing any of the LUNs on the SAN is that a single-mode fiber cable is used in place of multimode. A single-mode fiber cable is a type of optical fiber cable that has a small core diameter and allows only one mode of light to propagate through it. A single-mode fiber cable can transmit data over long distances at high speeds, but it requires more expensive transceivers and connectors than multimode fiber cables. A multimode fiber cable is a type of optical fiber cable that has a larger core diameter and allows multiple modes of light to propagate through it. A multimode fiber cable can transmit data over short distances at lower speeds than single-mode fiber cables, but it is more compatible and cost-effective than single-mode fiber cables. If a single-mode fiber cable is used in place of multimode, it can cause signal loss, attenuation, or mismatch between the devices. References: [CompTIA Server+ Certification Exam Objectives], Domain 3.0: Storage, Objective 3.2: Given a scenario, compare and contrast various storage technologies.
NEW QUESTION # 234
After installing a new file server, a technician notices the read times for accessing the same file are slower than the read times for other file servers.
Which of the following is the first step the technician should take?
- A. Install faster hard drives.
- B. Add more memory.
- C. Check if the cache is turned on.
- D. Enable link aggregation.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
The cache is a temporary storage area that holds frequently accessed data or instructions for faster retrieval. The cache can improve the read times for accessing files by reducing the need to access the hard drive, which is slower than the cache memory1. Therefore, the first step the technician should take is to check if the cache is turned on for the new file server. If the cache is turned off, the technician should enable it and see if the read times improve. The other options are incorrect because they are not the first steps to take.
Adding more memory, installing faster hard drives, or enabling link aggregation are possible ways to improve the performance of the file server, but they are more costly and time-consuming than checking the cache.
Moreover, they may not address the root cause of the problem if the cache is turned off.
NEW QUESTION # 235
Which of the following would protect data in transit?
- A. 3DES
- B. SHA-512
- C. SSL/TLS
- D. MD5
Answer: C
Explanation:
Data in transit refers to data being transmitted over a network, and protecting it requires encryption:
* SSL/TLS (A): Secure Sockets Layer (SSL) and Transport Layer Security (TLS) are encryption protocols designed specifically to protect data in transit by encrypting communication between endpoints. This is the correct answer.
* SHA-512 (B): Secure Hash Algorithm (SHA) is a hashing algorithm, not an encryption method. It is used for integrity verification rather than securing data in transit.
* MD5 (C): Message Digest Algorithm 5 (MD5) is another hashing function, primarily used for checksums and integrity checks, not for encrypting transmitted data.
* 3DES (D): Triple Data Encryption Standard (3DES) is a symmetric encryption algorithm, but it is used for data at rest rather than data in transit.
Since the question specifically asks about protecting data in transit, SSL/TLS is the correct answer.
Reference: CompTIA Server+ SK0-005 Official Textbook, Chapter 9 - Security and Encryption
NEW QUESTION # 236
A server is reporting a hard drive S.M.A.R.T. error. When a technician checks on the drive, however, it appears that all drives in the server are functioning normally. Which of the following is the reason for this issue?
- A. A S.M.A.R.T. error is an ECC error. Due to error checking and correcting, the drive has corrected the missing bit and completed the write operation correctly.
- B. A S.M.A.R.T. error is simply a bad sector. The drive has marked the sector as bad and will continue to function properly
- C. A S.M.A.R.T. error is a write operation error. It has detected that the write sent to the drive was incorrectly formatted and has requested a retransmission of the write from the controller
- D. A S.M.A.R.T. error is a predictive failure notice. The drive will fail in the near future and should be replaced at the next earliest time possible
Answer: D
Explanation:
https://www.seagate.com/support/kb/my-system-reported-a-smart-error-on-the-drive-184619en/
NEW QUESTION # 237
Users cannot access a new server by name, but the server does respond to a ping request using its IP address.
All the user workstations receive their IP information from a DHCP server. Which of the following would be the best step to perform NEXT?
- A. Run the tracert command from a workstation.
- B. Correct the missing DHCP scope.
- C. Update the workstation hosts file.
- D. Examine the DNS to see if the new server record exists.
Answer: D
Explanation:
If users cannot access a new server by name, but the server does respond to a ping request using its IP address, it means that there is a problem with name resolution. The DNS (Domain Name System) is a service that maps hostnames to IP addresses and vice versa. Therefore, the best step to perform next is to examine the DNS to see if the new server record exists and matches its IP address. If not, the DNS record needs to be added or updated accordingly. Running the tracert command from a workstation would not help with name resolution, as it only shows the route taken by packets to reach a destination by IP address. Correcting the missing DHCP scope would not help either, as DHCP (Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol) only assigns IP addresses and other network settings to clients, but does not resolve names. Updating the workstation hosts file would be a temporary workaround, but not a permanent solution, as it would require manually editing every workstation's hosts file with the new server's name and IP address. References: https://www.howtogeek.
com/164981/how-to-use-nslookup-to-check-domain-name-information-in-microsoft-windows/ https://www.
howtogeek.com/howto/27350/beginner-geek-how-to-edit-your-hosts-file/
NEW QUESTION # 238
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