[Dec-2025] Updated and Accurate CRISC Questions & Answers for passing the exam Quickly
Download Real CRISC Exam Dumps for candidates. 100% Free Dump Files
NEW QUESTION # 965
An organization has raised the risk appetite for technology risk. The MOST likely result would be:
- A. higher risk management cost
- B. lower risk management cost
- C. increased inherent risk
- D. decreased residual risk
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 966
Natural disaster is BEST associated to which of the following types of risk?
- A. Large impact
- B. Explanation:
Natural disaster can be a long-term or short-term and can have large or small impact on the
company. However, as the natural disasters are unpredictable and infrequent, they are best
considered as discontinuous. - C. is incorrect. Natural disaster can be a long-term, but it is not the best answer.
- D. Discontinuous
- E. Long-term
- F. Short-term
- G. is incorrect. Natural disaster can be a short-term, but it is not the best answer.
Answer: D
Explanation:
is incorrect. Natural disaster can be of large impact depending upon its nature, but it is
not the best answer.
NEW QUESTION # 967
Which of the following is the PRIMARY consideration when establishing an organization's risk management methodology?
- A. Business context
- B. Resource requirements
- C. Benchmarking information
- D. Risk tolerance level
Answer: A
Explanation:
The primary consideration when establishing an organization's risk management methodology is the business context, which includes the internal and external factors that influence the organization's objectives, strategies, scope, and boundaries. The business context helps to define the risk criteria, the risk appetite, the risk identification, the risk analysis, and the risk treatment. The other options are not the primary consideration, but rather the outcomes or inputs of the risk management methodology. References = ISO
31000 Risk Management - Principles and Guidelines; ISO 31000 Principles of Risk Management; The risk management process: What is the best structure and administration?
NEW QUESTION # 968
Which of the following MUST be assessed before considering risk treatment options for a scenario with significant impact?
- A. Incident probability
- B. Risk magnitude
- C. Risk appetite
- D. Cost-benefit analysis
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 969
Which of the following should a risk practitioner do NEXT after learning that Internet of Things (loT) devices installed in the production environment lack appropriate security controls for sensitive data?
- A. Assess the threat and associated impact.
- B. Evaluate risk appetite and tolerance levels
- C. Enable role-based access control.
- D. Recommend device management controls
Answer: A
Explanation:
Assessing the threat and associated impact is the next thing that a risk practitioner should do after learning that Internet of Things (IoT) devices installed in the production environment lack appropriate security controls for sensitive data. This is because assessing the threat and associated impact can help determine the level and nature of the risk posed by the IoT devices, as well as the potential consequences and costs of a security breach or incident. Assessing the threat and associated impact can also provide the basis for further risk analysis and response steps, such as evaluating risk appetite and tolerance levels, recommending device management controls, or enabling role-based access control. According to the CRISC Review Manual 2022, assessing the threat and associated impact is one of the key steps in the IT risk assessment process1.
According to the web search results, assessing the threat and associated impact is a common and recommended practice for addressing the security risks of IoT devices
NEW QUESTION # 970
Which of the following approaches will BEST help to ensure the effectiveness of risk awareness training?
- A. Using reputable third-party training programs
- B. Creating modules for targeted audiences
- C. Piloting courses with focus groups
- D. Reviewing content with senior management
Answer: B
Explanation:
The best approach to ensure the effectiveness of risk awareness training is to create modules for targeted audiences. This means that the risk awareness training should be customized and tailored to the specific needs, roles, and responsibilities of different groups of staff, such as business owners, process owners, IT staff, or external parties. Creating modules for targeted audiences helps to ensure that the risk awareness training is relevant, engaging, and applicable to the participants, and that it covers the appropriate level of detail and complexity. It also helps to enhance the learning outcomes and retention of the risk awareness training, and to foster a culture of risk awareness and responsibility within the enterprise. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, 7th Edition, Chapter 5, Section 5.4.1, page 2491
NEW QUESTION # 971
Which of the following BEST mitigates the risk associated with inadvertent data leakage by users who work remotely?
- A. Providing encrypted access to organizational assets
- B. Configuring devices to use virtual IP addresses
- C. Conducting training on the protection of organizational assets
- D. Ensuring patching for end-user devices
Answer: A
Explanation:
Providing encrypted access to organizational assets is the best method to mitigate the risk of inadvertent data leakage by remote workers. Encryption ensures that data remains secure, even if accessed over unsecured networks.
NEW QUESTION # 972
Which of the following should be the FIRST step when a company is made aware of new regulatory
requirements impacting IT?
- A. Perform a gap analysis.
- B. Review the risk tolerance and appetite.
- C. Perform a risk assessment.
- D. Prioritize impact to the business units.
Answer: B
Explanation:
New regulatory requirements impacting IT are those that impose new obligations, restrictions, or standards on
how an organization uses, manages, or secures its IT systems, data, or services1. Examples of such
regulations include the GDPR, the CCPA, the HIPAA, or the PCI-DSS2. New regulatory requirements
impacting IT can pose significant challenges and risks for an organization, such as:
Compliance costs and efforts, such as updating policies, procedures, and systems, training staff, or hiring
experts
Noncompliance penalties and consequences, such as fines, lawsuits, sanctions, or reputational damages
Operational disruptions or inefficiencies, such as system changes, data migrations, or service interruptions
Competitive disadvantages or opportunities, such as losing or gaining customers, partners, or markets3
The first step that should be done when a company is made aware of new regulatory requirements impacting
IT is to review the risk tolerance and appetite. Risk tolerance is the acceptable level of variation that an
organization is willing to accept around its risk appetite. Risk appetite is the amount and type of risk that an
organization is willing to take in order to meet its strategic objectives. By reviewing the risk tolerance and
appetite, the company can:
Establish a clear and consistent understanding of the organization's goals, values, and expectations regarding
the new regulatory requirements impacting IT
Assess the current and potential impacts of the new regulatory requirements impacting IT on the organization'
s performance, operations, or assets
Determine the level of risk exposure and acceptance that the organization is comfortable with, and identify the
risk thresholds or limits that should not be exceeded
Align the risk management strategies and actions with the organization's risk tolerance and appetite, and
prioritize the most critical and urgent risks to be addressed
Communicate and report the risk tolerance and appetite to the stakeholders and regulators, and ensure
transparency and accountability
References = Regulating emerging technology | Deloitte Insights, Ten Key Regulatory Challenges of 2024 -
kpmg.com, The Risks of Non-Compliance with Data Protection Laws, [Risk Tolerance - COSO], [Risk
Appetite - COSO], [Risk Appetite and Tolerance - IRM]
NEW QUESTION # 973
Which of the following is true for Cost Performance Index (CPI)?
- A. It is used to measure performance of schedule
- B. CPI = Earned Value (EV) * Actual Cost (AC)
- C. If the CPI > 1, it indicates better than expected performance of project
- D. If the CPI = 1, it indicates poor performance of project
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Cost performance index (CPI) is used to calculate performance efficiencies of project. It is used in trend analysis to predict future performance. CPI is the ratio of earned value to actual cost.
If the CPI value is greater than 1, it indicates better than expected performance, whereas if the value is less than 1, it shows poor performance.
Incorrect Answers:
B: CPI is the ratio of earned value to actual cost, i.e., CPI = Earned Value (EV) / Actual Cost (AC).
C: Cost performance index (CPI) is used to calculate performance efficiencies of project and not its schedule.
D: The CPI value of 1 indicates that the project is right on target.
NEW QUESTION # 974
Which of the following establishes mandatory rules, specifications and metrics used to measure compliance against quality, value, etc.?
- A. Standard
- B. Legal requirements
- C. Practices
- D. Framework
Answer: A
Explanation:
Section: Volume D
Explanation:
Standard establishes mandatory rules, specifications and metrics used to measure compliance against quality, value, etc. Standards are usually intended for compliance purposes and to provide assurance to others who interact with a process or outputs of a process.
Incorrect Answers:
A: Frameworks are generally accepted, business-process-oriented structures that establish a common language and enable repeatable business processes.
B: These are legal rules underneath which project has to be.
D: Practices are frequent or usual actions performed as an application of knowledge. A leading practice would be defined as an action that optimally applies knowledge in a particular area. They are issued by a "recognized authority" that is appropriate to the subject matter. issuing bodies may include professional associations and academic institutions or commercial entities such as software vendors. They are generally based on a combination of research, expert insight and peer review.
NEW QUESTION # 975
Which of the following is MOST important to review when an organization needs to transition the majority of its employees to remote work during a crisis?
- A. Impacts on IT project delivery
- B. Customer notification plans
- C. Capacity management
- D. Access management
Answer: C
Explanation:
Capacity management is crucial when transitioning employees to remote work during a crisis. It involves ensuring that the IT infrastructure can handle increased loads and that resources are available to support remote operations effectively.
NEW QUESTION # 976
Which of the following would qualify as a key performance indicator (KPI)?
- A. Number of identified system vulnerabilities
- B. Aggregate risk of the organization
- C. Number of attacks against the organization's website
- D. Number of exception requests processed in the past 90 days
Answer: A
Explanation:
A key performance indicator (KPI) is a measurable value that demonstrates how effectively an organization is achieving its key objectives. A KPI should be relevant, specific, measurable, achievable, and time-bound. The number of identified system vulnerabilities is a KPI that measures the security posture and performance of the organization's information systems. It also helps to identify the areas that need improvement or remediation.
The number of identified system vulnerabilities is relevant to the organization's objective of protecting its information assets, specific to the system level, measurable by using tools or methods, achievable by implementing security controls or practices, and time-bound by setting a target or threshold. Aggregate risk of the organization, number of exception requests processed in the past 90 days, and number of attacks against the organization's website are not KPIs, as they are either too broad, not relevant, or not measurable.
References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, 7th Edition, Chapter 4, Section 4.1.1.1, page 1741
1: ISACA Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control (CRISC) Exam Guide, Answer to Question
647.
NEW QUESTION # 977
Which of the following controls would BEST reduce the risk of account compromise?
- A. Enforce multi-factor authentication (MFA).
- B. Enforce password changes.
- C. Enforce password encryption.
- D. Enforce role-based authentication.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Detailed Explanation:Multi-factor authentication (MFA)significantly reduces the risk of account compromise
by requiring multiple forms of verification, such as a password and a one-time code, enhancing security
beyond single-factor authentication methods.
NEW QUESTION # 978
Which of the following is MOST important for a risk practitioner to review during an IT risk assessment?
- A. The organization's historical threats and monetary loss
- B. Published records of loss from peer organizations
- C. Information system assets and associated threats
- D. Information system control weaknesses and audit findings
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 979
During the internal review of an accounts payable process, a risk practitioner determines that the transaction approval limits configured in the system are not being enforced. Which of the following should be done NEXT?
- A. Notify senior management of the system deficiency.
- B. Identify the extent of the approval limit violations.
- C. Update the risk register with higher risk likelihood of violation.
- D. Remind users of the importance of adhering to approval limits.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Before taking further action, it is essential to understand the scope of the issue. Identifying the extent of violations helps determine the potential risk impact and informs appropriate corrective actions.
Reference:CRISC Manual - Domain 4: Monitoring and Reporting, Slide 248, 350
NEW QUESTION # 980
Which of the following is the BEST way to identify changes in the risk profile of an organization?
- A. Monitor key performance indicators (KPIs).
- B. Interview the risk owner.
- C. Conduct a gap analysis
- D. Monitor key risk indicators (KRIs).
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 981
Which of the following describes the relationship between risk appetite and risk tolerance?
- A. Risk appetite is completely independent of risk tolerance.
- B. Risk tolerance may exceed risk appetite.
- C. Risk appetite and risk tolerance are synonymous.
- D. Risk tolerance is used to determine risk appetite.
Answer: B
Explanation:
* Relationship between Risk Appetite and Risk Tolerance:
* Risk Appetite: Defined as the amount of risk an organization is willing to accept in pursuit of its objectives. It is a broad measure that reflects the organization's strategy and goals.
* Risk Tolerance: Refers to the acceptable level of variation in performance relative to achieving objectives. It is narrower and can sometimes exceed the risk appetite in specific situations where deviations are permissible.
* Contextual Understanding:
* Controlled Exceedance: Risk tolerance allows for occasional and controlled exceedance of the risk appetite, typically under specific conditions and for compelling business reasons.
* Management Decisions: Decisions to exceed risk appetite should be carefully considered and documented, ensuring they do not threaten the overall risk capacity of the organization.
* Comparison with Other Options:
* Independent of Each Other: Incorrect, as risk tolerance is related to risk appetite.
* Risk Tolerance Determines Risk Appetite: Incorrect, risk appetite is generally broader and set before determining risk tolerance.
* Synonymous: Incorrect, they are distinct concepts with risk tolerance providing operational flexibility within the boundaries set by risk appetite.
* Best Practices:
* Clear Definitions: Clearly define and communicate the organization's risk appetite and risk tolerance.
* Regular Reviews: Regularly review and adjust risk appetite and tolerance to align with changes in business strategy and external environment.
* CRISC Review Manual: Provides detailed definitions and examples illustrating the relationship between risk appetite and risk tolerance .
* ISACA Guidelines: Emphasize the importance of understanding and managing the interplay between risk appetite and tolerance for effective risk management .
References:
NEW QUESTION # 982
Who is PRIMARILY accountable for identifying risk on a daily basis and ensuring adherence to the
organization's policies?
- A. First line of defense
- B. Second line of defense
- C. Third line of defense
- D. Line of defense subject matter experts
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 983
Which of the following, who should be PRIMARILY responsible for performing user entitlement reviews?
- A. IT personnel
- B. Data owner
- C. IT security manager
- D. Data custodian
Answer: B
Explanation:
The person or entity who should be primarily responsible for performing user entitlement reviews is the data owner. A user entitlement review is a process that verifies and validates the access rights and privileges of the users to the data and resources in the IT environment. A user entitlement review helps to ensure that the users have the appropriate and necessary access to perform their roles and functions, and to prevent or detect any unauthorized or inappropriate access. A data owner is the person or entity that has the authority and responsibility to define, classify, and protect the data and resources in the IT environment. A data owner helps to perform user entitlement reviews, because they help to establish and enforce the access policies and standards for the data and resources, and to approve or revoke the access requests and changes for the users. A data owner also helps to monitor and report on the access performance and compliance for the data and resources, and to identify and address any issues or gaps in the access management activities. The other options are not the primary responsible party for performing user entitlement reviews, although they may be involved in the process. IT security manager, IT personnel, and data custodian are all examples of roles or functions that can help to support or implement the user entitlement reviews, but they do not necessarily have the authority or responsibility to define, classify, or protect the data and resources. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 5, Section 5.2.1, page 5-14.
NEW QUESTION # 984
Which of the following is the PRIMARY benefit of using an entry in the risk register to track the aggregate risk associated with server failure?
- A. It provides a comprehensive view of the impact should the servers simultaneously fail.
- B. It provides historical information about the impact of individual servers malfunctioning.
- C. It provides a view on where controls should be applied to maximize the uptime of servers.
- D. It provides a cost-benefit analysis on control options available for implementation.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Using an entry in the risk register to track the aggregate risk associated with server failure provides a comprehensive view of the impact should the servers simultaneously fail, as it considers the combined effect of the server failure on the enterprise's objectives and operations. The risk register is a document that records and tracks the identified risks, their likelihood, impact, and mitigation strategies. By aggregating the risk associated with server failure, the risk register can help to estimate the worst-case scenario and to prioritize the risk response accordingly. It provides a cost-benefit analysis on control options available for implementation, it provides a view on where controls should be applied to maximize the uptime of servers, and it provides historical information about the impact of individual servers malfunctioning are not the primary benefits of using an entry in the risk register to track the aggregate risk associated with server failure, but rather the possible outcomes or actions of using the risk register. References = CRISC Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control - Question220; ISACA Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control (CRISC) Certification Exam Question and Answers, question 220.
NEW QUESTION # 985
Which of the following is the MAIN benefit of involving stakeholders in the selection of key risk indicators (KRIs)?
- A. Optimizing risk treatment decisions
- B. Leveraging existing metrics
- C. Obtaining buy-in from risk owners
- D. Improving risk awareness
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 986
Which of the following is the BEST indication that key risk indicators (KRls) should be revised?
- A. A decrease In the number of key performance indicators (KPls)
- B. A decrease in the number of critical assets covered by risk thresholds
- C. An Increase In the number of risk threshold exceptions
- D. An increase in the number of change events pending management review
Answer: B
Explanation:
The best indication that key risk indicators (KRIs) should be revised is a decrease in the number of critical
assets covered by risk thresholds. KRIs are metrics that provide information on the level of exposure to a
given risk. Risk thresholds are the predefined values or ranges that indicate the acceptable or unacceptable
level of risk exposure. Critical assets are the assets that are essential or vital for the achievement of the
objectives or the continuity of the operations. A decrease in the number of critical assets covered by risk
thresholds means that the KRIs are not capturing or reflecting the current and relevant risk exposure of the
organization, and that they may not provide sufficient or accurate information for risk management decisions.
Therefore, the KRIs should be revised to ensure that they cover all the critical assets and their risk thresholds.
The other options are not as indicative as a decrease in the number of critical assets covered by risk
thresholds, as they are related to the outcomes, impacts, or activities of the KRIs, not thescope or quality of
the KRIs. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 4: Risk and Control
Monitoring and Reporting, Section 4.2: Key Performance Indicators, page 183.
NEW QUESTION # 987
......
Prepare Important Exam with CRISC Exam Dumps: https://www.prep4surereview.com/CRISC-latest-braindumps.html
Pass Exam Questions Efficiently With CRISC Questions: https://drive.google.com/open?id=1IfUZbC3RfXoOzZUvktv97TaVh12zoGjd
