Prepare Top ASQ CSQE Exam Study Guide Practice Questions Edition Go to CSQE Questions - Try CSQE dumps pdf NEW QUESTION # 12 Which of the following individuals on the Change Control Board (CCB) is responsible for escalating change requests and other issues to a higher level CCB or management? A. Chair B. Screener C. Scribe D. Member Answer: A Explanation:The Chair of the Change Control Board (CCB) [...]

Prepare Top ASQ CSQE Exam Study Guide Practice Questions Edition [Q12-Q28]

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Prepare Top ASQ CSQE Exam Study Guide Practice Questions Edition

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NEW QUESTION # 12
Which of the following individuals on the Change Control Board (CCB) is responsible for escalating change requests and other issues to a higher level CCB or management?

  • A. Chair
  • B. Screener
  • C. Scribe
  • D. Member

Answer: A

Explanation:
The Chair of the Change Control Board (CCB) is responsible for escalating change requests and other issues to a higher level CCB or management. The Chair ensures that all changes are properly reviewed and approved, and any significant issues that cannot be resolved at the current level are escalated for further consideration.


NEW QUESTION # 13
Which of the following must be included in a software defect report to track detection effectiveness?

  • A. Software component containing the defect
  • B. Who found the defect
  • C. The phase the defect was introduced
  • D. Root cause of the defect

Answer: C

Explanation:
Purpose of Tracking Defects:The goal is to understand not only where defects are found but also where they originate. This allows for better prevention strategies and process improvements.
Importance of Defect Introduction Phase:Knowing the phase where the defect was introduced helps in pinpointing weak areas in the development process. This can lead to targeted improvements.
Effectiveness in Detection:To effectively track detection efficiency, it is crucial to map defects back to their introduction phase to analyze and optimize earlier phases for defect prevention.


NEW QUESTION # 14
The benefits of having the data owner collect the data is that data owners

  • A. have in-depth knowledge of the data: therefore, the data they collect will be bias-free
  • B. know which are the best statistical tools and techniques for data analysis
  • C. can process data as it is being created, which increases collection speed
  • D. are more likely to detect anomalies in the data as it is being collected., which helps increase accuracy

Answer: D

Explanation:
Data owners are typically individuals or groups who have deep understanding and control over a specific set of data. They are well-versed in the context, nuances, and expected patterns of the data they manage. This in-depth knowledge allows them to:
* Detect Anomalies: Because data owners understand what the data should look like under normal circumstances, they are more likely to spot inconsistencies or errors as data is being collected.
* Increase Accuracy: By catching and correcting anomalies early in the data collection process, data owners can ensure that the data remains accurate and reliable.
* Immediate Action: Anomalies can be addressed on the spot, reducing the time and effort required for post-collection data cleaning and correction.


NEW QUESTION # 15
Software configuration status accounting is the process of

  • A. systematically controlling changes to software items under configuration control
  • B. providing objective assurance that the software configuration items being built match their requirements
  • C. partitioning the software product into formally identified configuration items
  • D. recording and reporting of information needed to effectively manage a software configuration

Answer: D

Explanation:
Software configuration status accounting involves the recording and reporting of information necessary for managing a software configuration. This includes tracking changes to configuration items, maintaining the integrity and traceability of the configuration throughout the software lifecycle, and ensuring that changes are documented and communicated. It is a crucial aspect of Configuration Management. References: IEEE Std
828-2012 - IEEE Standard for Configuration Management in Systems and Software Engineering.


NEW QUESTION # 16
In the following control diagram, all paths are feasible and the decisions are not correlated to each other.

How many rests are necessary for branch coverage?

  • A. 0
  • B. 1
  • C. 2
  • D. 3

Answer: C

Explanation:
Branch coverage, also known as decision coverage, ensures that every possible branch (i.e., true and false conditions) in the code is executed at least once. To determine the number of tests necessary for branch coverage in the given control flow diagram, we must count the distinct branches resulting from each decision point.
* Decision 1: 2 branches (true and false)
* Decision 2: 2 branches (true and false)
* Decision 3: 2 branches (true and false)
Since each decision has two branches and they are independent of each other, the number of distinct paths that need to be tested is: 2(Decision1)+2(Decision2)+2(Decision3)=6 branches2 (Decision 1) + 2 (Decision 2) + 2 (Decision 3) = 6 \text{ branches}2(Decision1)+2(Decision2)+2(Decision3)=6 branches However, the number of tests needed to cover all branches is the maximum number of branches any path could take, considering that a single test might cover multiple branches. For the given control diagram, 4 tests will suffice to cover all branches:
* Path: A -> Decision 1 (true) -> B
* Path: A -> Decision 1 (false) -> Decision 2 (true) -> C
* Path: A -> Decision 1 (false) -> Decision 2 (false) -> Decision 3 (true) -> D
* Path: A -> Decision 1 (false) -> Decision 2 (false) -> Decision 3 (false) These four tests ensure all branches are covered at least once.


NEW QUESTION # 17
Which of the following libraries is used to archive intermediate baselines?

  • A. Dynamic
  • B. Controlled
  • C. Static
  • D. Backup

Answer: B

Explanation:
Controlled libraries, also known as configuration-controlled libraries, are used to store and manage intermediate baselines. These baselines are versions of the software at various points in the development lifecycle. By archiving these baselines in a controlled library, teams can ensure that all changes are tracked, and specific versions can be retrieved when needed for further development, testing, or rollback purposes. This practice is essential in maintaining configuration management and ensuring the integrity and traceability of software versions.
References:
* IEEE Standard 828-2012 for Configuration Management in Systems and Software Engineering.
* "Configuration Management Best Practices: Practical Methods that Work in the Real World" by Bob Aiello and Leslie Sachs.


NEW QUESTION # 18
In lean software development extra features should be identified as

  • A. potential re-use elements
  • B. waste
  • C. an internal cost of quality
  • D. defects

Answer: B

Explanation:
A successful internal audit depends significantly on obtaining management's cooperation and support. This ensures that the audit findings and recommendations are taken seriously and that there is a commitment to implementing necessary changes. Reporting deficiencies, completing checklist items, and recommending corrective actions are important, but without management support, these actions may not lead to effective improvements. References: "The Internal Auditing Handbook" by K.H. Spencer Pickett.


NEW QUESTION # 19
Which of the following disadvantages are associated with the "formal meeting" technique of oral communication?

  • A. Loss of non-verbal communication, one way communication, and all topics may not be relevant to all team members
  • B. Loss of non-verbal communication, no permanent record, and time consuming
  • C. Can degrade into time wasters, can be disruptive, and requires considerable planning and skills to achieve positive impression
  • D. Can degrade into time wasters, some people feel uncomfortable offering opinions in public, and difficult for remote team members

Answer: D

Explanation:
Formal meetings, while useful, can have several disadvantages:
* They can degrade into time wasters if not well-managed.
* Some people might feel uncomfortable offering opinions in a public setting, leading to a lack of valuable input.
* It can be challenging for remote team members to participate effectively, especially if the meeting relies heavily on in-person dynamics.
References:
* "Peopleware: Productive Projects and Teams" by Tom DeMarco and Timothy Lister
* "The Art of Project Management" by Scott Berkun


NEW QUESTION # 20
Which of the following metrics is included in earned value management?

  • A. The actual cost of outstanding work
  • B. The budgeted cost of work performed
  • C. The actual cost of scheduled work
  • D. The actual delay in project schedule

Answer: B

Explanation:
Earned Value Management (EVM) includes several key metrics, one of which is the budgeted cost of work performed (BCWP). Here's a detailed explanation:
* Earned Value (EV): Represents the value of work actually performed in terms of the budget assigned for that work.
* Planned Value (PV): The budgeted cost for the work planned/scheduled.
* Actual Cost (AC): The actual cost incurred for the work performed.
* Performance Measurement: BCWP is crucial for comparing planned work with actual progress and costs, helping in performance measurement and project forecasting.
References:
* "Project Management: A Systems Approach to Planning, Scheduling, and Controlling" by Harold Kerzner.
* PMI's "A Guide to the Project Management Body of Knowledge (PMBOK Guide)".


NEW QUESTION # 21
An environmental monitoring software system is required to measure ambient temperature and sound an alarm if the temperature drops below 19 3C or rises above 21 °C. Which of the following observed test results would be an error for this system?

  • A. Temperature Display: Cannot measure Alarm Status: Silent
  • B. Temperature Display: 21 °C Alarm Status Silent
  • C. Temperature Display: 15 °C Alarm Status Ringing
  • D. Temperature Display: 20 CC Alarm Status. Silent

Answer: B

Explanation:
The system is designed to sound an alarm if the temperature is below 19°C or above 21°C. Therefore, if the temperature display shows 21°C, the alarm should be ringing. Since option D indicates that the alarm is silent when the temperature is 21°C, this behavior contradicts thespecified requirements, indicating an error.


NEW QUESTION # 22
Which of the following information is considered part of the software baseline?

  • A. Test logs
  • B. Software metrics and summarized data
  • C. User survey and their results
  • D. Test plan and test cases

Answer: D

Explanation:
A software baseline is a set of documents or files that serve as a reference point for further development.
* Definition: A baseline is a formally reviewed and agreed-upon set of items that serve as a basis for further development and can only be changed through formal change control procedures.
* Components: The test plan and test cases are part of the software baseline because they are essential for verifying and validating the software against its requirements.
* Importance: Including test plans and test cases in the baseline ensures that there is a clear, documented set of criteria and procedures for evaluating the software's performance and compliance with requirements.


NEW QUESTION # 23
Results from a process audit show that the requirements group does not control changes to its software specifications. Which of the following basic requirements should be added to the software configuration management (SCM) policy?

  • A. Each project must have an established repository for storing configuration items.
  • B. SCM must be implemented throughout the project's lifecycle.
  • C. Responsibility- for SCM must be explicitly assigned for each project
  • D. SCM must be implemented for externally deliverable software products

Answer: C

Explanation:
When the requirements group does not control changes to software specifications, a basic requirement is to assign explicit responsibility for software configuration management (SCM) for each project. Here's why:
* Clear Accountability: Assigning explicit responsibility ensures that someone is accountable for managing and controlling changes.
* Consistency in Process: This ensures consistent application of SCM practices across different projects.
* Improved Control: Clear responsibility helps in better monitoring and controlling changes, reducing the risk of unauthorized or untracked changes.
* Policy Enforcement: Facilitates the enforcement of SCM policies and procedures, ensuring compliance and integrity of the project.
References:
* "Software Configuration Management Patterns: Effective Teamwork, Practical Integration" by Stephen
P. Berczuk and Brad Appleton.
* "Software Configuration Management Strategies and Rational ClearCase: A Practical Introduction" by Brian A. White.


NEW QUESTION # 24
Which of the following measures describes the number of independent linear paths through a module?

  • A. Cyclomatic complexity
  • B. Defect density
  • C. Function points
  • D. Lines of code

Answer: A

Explanation:
Cyclomatic complexity measures the number of independent linear paths through a module. It is a quantitative measure of the complexity of a program, calculated using the control flow graph of the program. This metric helps in understanding the complexity and potential risk areas within the code.
References:
* McCabe, T. J. (1976). A Complexity Measure. IEEE Transactions on Software Engineering.
* Pressman, R. S. (2014). Software Engineering: A Practitioner's Approach (8th Edition).


NEW QUESTION # 25
Which of the following aspects of information systems is disaster recovery primarily concerned with protecting?

  • A. Integrity
  • B. Authorization
  • C. Confidentiality
  • D. Availability

Answer: D

Explanation:
Disaster recovery is primarily concerned with ensuring that information systems can continue to operate or be quickly restored to operation after a disaster.
* Objective: The main objective of disaster recovery is to ensure that the system remains available, or can be quickly made available, after an interruption or disaster.
* Key Elements: This involves having backups, redundant systems, and recovery plans that can be quickly executed to restore system functionality.
* Focus on Availability: While integrity and confidentiality are also important, the immediate concern of disaster recovery is to ensure that systems are available to users to maintain business continuity.


NEW QUESTION # 26
As a side job: a trio of software quality' engineers developed a database management system for XYZ, a non-competing company and subsequently packaged it for commercial sale as DBM Solutions. The engineers supervisor read about the new system in a trade magazine and asked the engineers for their opinion on whether to buy DBM Solutions. What would be the most appropriate way for the engineers to respond to this situation?

  • A. Advise XYZ about their company's interest in the software and ask XYZ to make a presentation of the software
  • B. Explain their role in developing the software and ask to be excused from participating in the purchase decision.
  • C. Advise their supervisor to buy the software., based on the fact that the product will meet the company's requirements.
  • D. Offer to examine the software, evaluate it with respect to the company's requirements, and report on the findings

Answer: B

Explanation:
The engineers face a conflict of interest since they developed the software in question. The most appropriate response is to disclose their involvement and recuse themselves from the decision-making process to maintain integrity and avoid any appearance of bias or self-dealing. According to IEEE Code of Ethics, engineers should avoid conflicts of interest and be transparent about any potential conflicts. References: IEEE Code of Ethics, Section III.


NEW QUESTION # 27
The diagram below corresponds to a 100-lme; high-level language program with a single loop that can be executed no more than 20 times.

If this program was exhaustively tested, approximately how many possible paths would be executed0

  • A. 0
  • B. 1
  • C. 2
  • D. 3

Answer: B

Explanation:
In the given diagram, each diamond represents a decision point, and each square represents a process step.
Assuming the decisions and paths within the loop create unique paths, the complexity can be calculated as follows: if each decision point splits into 2 paths and there arennndecision points within the loop, then the number of possible paths for one iteration can be represented as2n2^n2n. Given that the loop executes 20 times, the total number of paths would be approximately(2n)20(2^n)^{20}(2n)20. Since there are multiple decision points, the complexity quickly escalates, leading to a very high number of possible paths, hence 1014 is a plausible approximation.


NEW QUESTION # 28
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