Get Ready to Pass the 212-82 exam Right Now Using Our Cyber Technician (CCT) Exam Package [Q27-Q52]

Get Ready to Pass the 212-82 exam Right Now Using Our Cyber Technician (CCT) Exam Package

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NEW QUESTION # 27
An loT device placed in a hospital for safety measures has sent an alert to the server. The network traffic has been captured and stored in the Documents folder of the "Attacker Machine-1". Analyze the loTdeviceTraffic.pcapng file and identify the command the loT device sent over the network. (Practical Question)

• A. Temp_High
• B. Tempe_Low
• C. High_Tcmpe
• D. Low_Tem p e

Answer: A

Explanation:
The loT device sent the command Temp_High over the network, which indicates that the temperature in the hospital was above the threshold level. This can be verified by analyzing the loTdeviceTraffic.pcapng file using a network protocol analyzer tool such as Wireshark4. The command Temp_High can be seen in the data field of the UDP packet sent from the loT device (192.168.0.10) to the server (192.168.0.1) at 12:00:03. The screenshot below shows the packet details5: Reference: Wireshark User's Guide, [loTdeviceTraffic.pcapng]

NEW QUESTION # 28
An organization hired a network operations center (NOC) team to protect its IT infrastructure from external attacks. The organization utilized a type of threat intelligence to protect its resources from evolving threats. The threat intelligence helped the NOC team understand how attackers are expected to perform an attack on the organization, identify the information leakage, and determine the attack goals as well as attack vectors.
Identify the type of threat intelligence consumed by the organization in the above scenario.

• A. Tactical threat intelligence
• B. Technical threat intelligence
• C. Strategic threat intelligence
• D. Operational threat intelligence

Answer: B

Explanation:
Technical threat intelligence is a type of threat intelligence that provides information about the technical details of specific attacks, such as indicators of compromise (IOCs), malware signatures, attack vectors, and vulnerabilities. Technical threat intelligence helps the NOC team understand how attackers are expected to perform an attack on the organization, identify the information leakage, and determine the attack goals as well as attack vectors. Technical threat intelligence is often consumed by security analysts, incident responders, and penetration testers who need to analyze and respond to active or potential threats.

NEW QUESTION # 29
A software company is developing a new software product by following the best practices for secure application development. Dawson, a software analyst, is checking the performance of the application on the client's network to determine whether end users are facing any issues in accessing the application.
Which of the following tiers of a secure application development lifecycle involves checking the performance of the application?

• A. Development
• B. Staging
• C. Quality assurance (QA)
• D. Testing

Answer: D

Explanation:
The testing tier of a secure application development lifecycle involves checking the performance of the application on the client's network to determine whether end users are facing any issues in accessing the application. Testing is a crucial phase of software development that ensures the quality, functionality, reliability, and security of the application. Testing can be done manually or automatically using various tools and techniques, such as unit testing, integration testing, system testing, regression testing, performance testing, usability testing, security testing, and acceptance testing

NEW QUESTION # 30
Warren, a member of IH&R team at an organization, was tasked with handling a malware attack launched on one of servers connected to the organization's network. He immediately implemented appropriate measures to stop the infection from spreading to other organizational assets and to prevent further damage to the organization.
Identify the IH&R step performed by Warren in the above scenario.

• A. Incident triage
• B. Eradication
• C. Recovery
• D. Containment

Answer: D

Explanation:
Containment is the IH&R step performed by Warren in the above scenario. IH&R (Incident Handling and Response) is a process that involves identifying, analyzing, containing, eradicating, recovering from, and reporting on security incidents that affect an organization's network or system. Containment is the IH&R step that involves implementing appropriate measures to stop the infection from spreading to other organizational assets and to prevent further damage to the organization . Containment can be done by isolating the affected system or network, blocking malicious traffic or communication, disabling or removing malicious accounts or processes, etc. Recovery is the IH&R step that involves restoring the normal operation of the system or network after eradicating the incident. Eradication is the IH&R step that involves removing all traces of the incident from the system or network, such as malware, backdoors, compromised files, etc. Incident triage is the IH&R step that involves prioritizing incidents based on their severity, impact, and urgency.

NEW QUESTION # 31
Karter, a security professional, deployed a honeypot on the organization's network for luring attackers who attempt to breach the network. For this purpose, he configured a type of honeypot that simulates a real OS as well as the applications and services of a target network. Furthermore, the honeypot deployed by Karter only responds to pre-configured commands.
Identify the type of Honeypot deployed by Karter in the above scenario.

• A. Medium-interaction honeypot
• B. Pure honeypot
• C. High-interaction honeypot
• D. Low-interaction honeypot

Answer: D

Explanation:
A low-interaction honeypot is a type of honeypot that simulates a real OS as well as the applications and services of a target network, but only responds to pre-configured commands. It is designed to capture basic information about the attacker, such as their IP address, tools, and techniques. A low-interaction honeypot is easier to deploy and maintain than a high-interaction honeypot, which fully emulates a real system and allows the attacker to interact with it. A pure honeypot is a real system that is intentionally vulnerable and exposed to attackers. A medium-interaction honeypot is a type of honeypot that offers more functionality and interactivity than a low-interaction honeypot, but less than a high-interaction honeypot.

NEW QUESTION # 32
Gideon, a forensic officer, was examining a victim's Linux system suspected to be involved in online criminal activities. Gideon navigated to a directory containing a log file that recorded information related to user login/logout. This information helped Gideon to determine the current login state of cyber criminals in the victim system, identify the Linux log file accessed by Gideon in this scenario.

• A. /va r/l og /wt m p
• B. /va r/l og /mysq Id. log
• C. /var/log/httpd/
• D. /ar/log/boot.iog

Answer: A

Explanation:
/var/log/wtmp is the Linux log file accessed by Gideon in this scenario. /var/log/wtmp is a log file that records information related to user login/logout, such as username, terminal, IP address, and login time. /var/log/wtmp can be used to determine the current login state of users in a Linux system. /var/log/wtmp can be viewed using commands such as last, lastb, or utmpdump1.

NEW QUESTION # 33
Myles, a security professional at an organization, provided laptops for all the employees to carry out the business processes from remote locations. While installing necessary applications required for the business, Myles has also installed antivirus software on each laptop following the company's policy to detect and protect the machines from external malicious events over the Internet.
Identify the PCI-DSS requirement followed by Myles in the above scenario.

• A. PCI-DSS requirement no 1.3.5
• B. PCI-DSS requirement no 1.3.2
• C. PCI-DSS requirement no 5.1
• D. PCI-DSS requirement no 1.3.1

Answer: C

Explanation:
The correct answer is C, as it identifies the PCI-DSS requirement followed by Myles in the above scenario. PCI-DSS is a set of standards that aims to protect cardholder data and ensure secure payment transactions. PCI-DSS has 12 requirements that cover various aspects of security such as network configuration, data encryption, access control, vulnerability management, monitoring, and testing. PCI-DSS requirement no 5.1 states that "Protect all systems against malware and regularly update anti-virus software or programs". In the above scenario, Myles followed this requirement by installing antivirus software on each laptop to detect and protect the machines from external malicious events over the Internet. Option A is incorrect, as it does not identify the PCI-DSS requirement followed by Myles in the above scenario. PCI-DSS requirement no 1.3.2 states that "Do not allow unauthorized outbound traffic from the cardholder data environment to the Internet". In the above scenario, Myles did not follow this requirement, as there was no mention of outbound traffic or cardholder data environment. Option B is incorrect, as it does not identify the PCI-DSS requirement followed by Myles in the above scenario. PCI-DSS requirement no 1.3.5 states that "Restrict inbound and outbound traffic to that which is necessary for the cardholder data environment". In the above scenario, Myles did not follow this requirement, as there was no mention of inbound or outbound traffic or cardholder data environment. Option D is incorrect, as it does not identify the PCI-DSS requirement followed by Myles in the above scenario. PCI-DSS requirement no 1.3.1 states that "Implement a firewall configuration that restricts connections between publicly accessible servers and any system component storing cardholder data". In the above scenario, Myles did not follow this requirement, as there was no mention of firewall configuration or publicly accessible servers or system components storing cardholder data.

NEW QUESTION # 34
An MNC hired Brandon, a network defender, to establish secured VPN communication between the company's remote offices. For this purpose, Brandon employed a VPN topology where all the remote offices communicate with the corporate office but communication between the remote offices is denied.
Identify the VPN topology employed by Brandon in the above scenario.

• A. Point-to-Point VPN topology
• B. Star topology
• C. Full-mesh VPN topology
• D. Hub-and-Spoke VPN topology

Answer: D

Explanation:
A hub-and-spoke VPN topology is a type of VPN topology where all the remote offices communicate with the corporate office, but communication between the remote offices is denied. The corporate office acts as the hub, and the remote offices act as the spokes. This topology reduces the number of VPN tunnels required and simplifies the management of VPN policies. A point-to-point VPN topology is a type of VPN topology where two endpoints establish a direct VPN connection. A star topology is a type of VPN topology where one endpoint acts as the central node and connects to multiple other endpoints. A full-mesh VPN topology is a type of VPN topology where every endpoint connects to every other endpoint.

NEW QUESTION # 35
An FTP server has been hosted in one of the machines in the network. Using Cain and Abel the attacker was able to poison the machine and fetch the FTP credentials used by the admin. You're given a task to validate the credentials that were stolen using Cain and Abel and read the file flag.txt

• A. blue@hat
• B. white@hat
• C. red@hat
• D. hat@red

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION # 36
Anderson, a security engineer, was Instructed to monitor all incoming and outgoing traffic on the organization's network to identify any suspicious traffic. For this purpose, he employed an analysis technique using which he analyzed packet header fields such as IP options, IP protocols, IP fragmentation flags, offset, and identification to check whether any fields are altered in transit.
Identify the type of attack signature analysis performed by Anderson in the above scenario.

• A. Context-based signature analysis
• B. Atomic-signature-based analysis
• C. Composite-signature-based analysis
• D. Content-based signature analysis

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION # 37
Walker, a security team member at an organization, was instructed to check if a deployed cloud service is working as expected. He performed an independent examination of cloud service controls to verify adherence to standards through a review of objective evidence. Further, Walker evaluated the services provided by the CSP regarding security controls, privacy impact, and performance.
Identify the role played by Walker in the above scenario.

• A. Cloud provider
• B. Cloud carrier
• C. Cloud consumer
• D. Cloud auditor

Answer: D

Explanation:
A cloud auditor is a role played by Walker in the above scenario. A cloud auditor is a third party who examines controls of cloud computing service providers. Cloud auditor performs an audit to verify compliance with the standards and expressed his opinion through a report89. A cloud provider is an entity that provides cloud services, such as infrastructure, platform, or software, to cloud consumers10. A cloud carrier is an entity that provides connectivity and transport of cloud services between cloud providers and cloud consumers10. A cloud consumer is an entity that uses cloud services for its own purposes or on behalf of another entity

NEW QUESTION # 38
RAT has been setup in one of the machines connected to the network to steal the important Sensitive corporate docs located on Desktop of the server, further investigation revealed the IP address of the server 20.20.10.26. Initiate a remote connection using thief client and determine the number of files present in the folder.
Hint: Thief folder is located at: Z:\CCT-Tools\CCT Module 01 Information Security Threats and Vulnerabilities\Remote Access Trojans (RAT)\Thief of Attacker Machine-1.

• A. 0
• B. 1
• C. 2
• D. 3

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION # 39
Stephen, a security professional at an organization, was instructed to implement security measures that prevent corporate data leakage on employees' mobile devices. For this purpose, he employed a technique using which all personal and corporate data are isolated on an employee's mobile device. Using this technique, corporate applications do not have any control of or communication with the private applications or data of the employees.
Which of the following techniques has Stephen implemented in the above scenario?

• A. OTA updates
• B. Geofencing
• C. Full device encryption
• D. Containerization

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION # 40
Kasen, a cybersecurity specialist at an organization, was working with the business continuity and disaster recovery team. The team initiated various business continuity and discovery activities in the organization. In this process, Kasen established a program to restore both the disaster site and the damaged materials to the pre-disaster levels during an incident.
Which of the following business continuity and disaster recovery activities did Kasen perform in the above scenario?

• A. Prevention
• B. Resumption
• C. Recovery
• D. Response

Answer: C

Explanation:
Recovery is the business continuity and disaster recovery activity that Kasen performed in the above scenario. Business continuity and disaster recovery (BCDR) is a process that involves planning, preparing, and implementing various activities to ensure the continuity of critical business functions and the recovery of essential resources in the event of a disaster or disruption. BCDR activities can be categorized into four phases: prevention, response, resumption, and recovery . Prevention is the BCDR phase that involves identifying and mitigating potential risks and threats that can cause a disaster or disruption. Response is the BCDR phase that involves activating the BCDR plan and executing the immediate actions to protect people, assets, and operations during a disaster or disruption. Resumption is the BCDR phase that involves restoring the minimum level of services and functions required to resume normal business operations after a disaster or disruption. Recovery is the BCDR phase that involves restoring both the disaster site and the damaged materials to the pre-disaster levels during an incident.

NEW QUESTION # 41
Kason, a forensic officer, was appointed to investigate a case where a threat actor has bullied certain children online. Before proceeding legally with the case, Kason has documented all the supporting documents, including source of the evidence and its relevance to the case, before presenting it in front of the jury.
Which of the following rules of evidence was discussed in the above scenario?

• A. Authentic
• B. Understandable
• C. Admissible
• D. Reliable

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION # 42
Initiate an SSH Connection to a machine that has SSH enabled in the network. After connecting to the machine find the file flag.txt and choose the content hidden in the file. Credentials for SSH login are provided below:
Hint:
Username: sam
Password: admin@l23

• A. sam2@bob
• B. bob@sam
• C. bob2@sam
• D. sam@bob

Answer: B

Explanation:
Quid pro quo is the social engineering technique that Johnson employed in the above scenario. Social engineering is a technique that involves manipulating or deceiving people into performing actions or revealing information that can be used for malicious purposes. Social engineering can be performed through various methods, such as phone calls, emails, websites, etc. Quid pro quo is a social engineering method that involves offering a service or a benefit in exchange for information or access. Quid pro quo can be used to trick victims into believing that they are receiving help or assistance from a legitimate source, while in fact they are compromising their security or privacy . In the scenario, Johnson performed quid pro quo by claiming himself to represent a technical support team from a vendor and offering to help sibertech.org with a server issue, while in fact he prompted the victim to execute unusual commands and install malicious files, which were then used to collect and pass critical information to Johnson's machine. Diversion theft is a social engineering method that involves diverting the delivery or shipment of goods or assets to a different location or destination. Elicitation is a social engineering method that involves extracting information from a target by engaging them in a conversation or an interaction. Phishing is a social engineering method that involves sending fraudulent emails or messages that appear to come from a trusted source, such as a bank, a company, or a person, and asking the recipient to click on a link, open an attachment, or provide personal or financial information.

NEW QUESTION # 43
Shawn, a forensic officer, was appointed to investigate a crime scene that had occurred at a coffee shop. As a part of investigation, Shawn collected the mobile device from the victim, which may contain potential evidence to identify the culprits.
Which of the following points must Shawn follow while preserving the digital evidence? (Choose three.)

• A. Never record the screen display of the device
• B. Make sure that the device is charged
• C. Turn the device ON if it is OFF
• D. Do not leave the device as it is if it is ON

Answer: B,C,D

NEW QUESTION # 44
Thomas, an employee of an organization, is restricted to access specific websites from his office system. He is trying to obtain admin credentials to remove the restrictions. While waiting for an opportunity, he sniffed communication between the administrator and an application server to retrieve the admin credentials. Identify the type of attack performed by Thomas in the above scenario.

• A. Dumpster diving
• B. Phishing
• C. Vishing
• D. Eavesdropping

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION # 45
Kaison. a forensic officer, was investigating a compromised system used for various online attacks. Kaison initiated the data acquisition process and extracted the data from the systems DVD-ROM. Which of the following types of data did Kaison acquire in the above scenario?

• A. Processor cache
• B. Kernel statistics
• C. ARP cache
• D. Archival media

Answer: D

Explanation:
Archival media is the type of data that Kaison acquired in the above scenario. Archival media is a type of data that is stored on removable media such as DVD-ROMs, CD-ROMs, tapes, or flash drives. Archival media can be used to backup or transfer data from one system to another. Archival media can be acquired using forensic tools that can read and copy the data from the media4. Reference: Archival Media

NEW QUESTION # 46
Kayden successfully cracked the final round of interviews at an organization. After a few days, he received his offer letter through an official company email address. The email stated that the selected candidate should respond within a specified time. Kayden accepted the opportunity and provided an e-signature on the offer letter, then replied to the same email address. The company validated the e-signature and added his details to their database. Here, Kayden could not deny the company's message, and the company could not deny Kayden's signature.
Which of the following information security elements was described in the above scenario?

• A. Availability
• B. Non-repudiation
• C. Integrity
• D. Confidentiality

Answer: B

Explanation:
The correct answer is B, as it describes the information security element that was described in the above scenario. Non-repudiation is an information security element that ensures that a party cannot deny sending or receiving a message or performing an action. In the above scenario, non-repudiation was described, as Kayden could not deny company's message, and company could not deny Kayden's signature. Option A is incorrect, as it does not describe the information security element that was described in the above scenario. Availability is an information security element that ensures that authorized users can access and use information and resources when needed. In the above scenario, availability was not described, as there was no mention of access or use of information and resources. Option C is incorrect, as it does not describe the information security element that was described in the above scenario. Integrity is an information security element that ensures that information and resources are accurate and complete and have not been modified by unauthorized parties. In the above scenario, integrity was not described, as there was no mention of accuracy or completeness of information and resources. Option D is incorrect, as it does not describe the information security element that was described in the above scenario. Confidentiality is an information security element that ensures that information and resources are protected from unauthorized access and disclosure. In the above scenario, confidentiality was not described, as there was no mention of protection or disclosure of information and resources.

NEW QUESTION # 47
Kevin, a professional hacker, wants to penetrate CyberTech Inc.'s network. He employed a technique, using which he encoded packets with Unicode characters. The company's IDS cannot recognize the packet, but the target web server can decode them.
What is the technique used by Kevin to evade the IDS system?

• A. Session splicing
• B. Urgency flag
• C. Desynchronization
• D. Obfuscating

Answer: D

Explanation:
Obfuscating is the technique used by Kevin to evade the IDS system in the above scenario. Obfuscating is a technique that involves encoding or modifying packets or data with various methods or characters to make them unreadable or unrecognizable by an IDS (Intrusion Detection System). Obfuscating can be used to bypass or evade an IDS system that relies on signatures or patterns to detect malicious activities. Obfuscating can include encoding packets with Unicode characters, which are characters that can represent various languages and symbols. The IDS system cannot recognize the packet, but the target web server can decode them and execute them normally. Desynchronization is a technique that involves creating discrepancies or inconsistencies between the state of a connection as seen by an IDS system and the state of a connection as seen by the end hosts. Desynchronization can be used to bypass or evade an IDS system that relies on stateful inspection to track and analyze connections. Desynchronization can include sending packets with invalid sequence numbers, which are numbers that indicate the order of packets in a connection. Session splicing is a technique that involves splitting or dividing packets or data into smaller fragments or segments to make them harder to detect by an IDS system. Session splicing can be used to bypass or evade an IDS system that relies on packet size or content to detect malicious activities. Session splicing can include sending packets with small MTU (Maximum Transmission Unit) values, which are values that indicate the maximum size of packets that can be transmitted over a network. An urgency flag is a flag in the TCP (Transmission Control Protocol) header that indicates that the data in the packet is urgent and should be processed immediately by the receiver. An urgency flag is not a technique to evade an IDS system, but it can be used to trigger an IDS system to generate an alert or a response.

NEW QUESTION # 48
Henry Is a cyber security specialist hired by BlackEye - Cyber security solutions. He was tasked with discovering the operating system (OS) of a host. He used the Unkornscan tool to discover the OS of the target system. As a result, he obtained a TTL value, which Indicates that the target system is running a Windows OS. Identify the TTL value Henry obtained, which indicates that the target OS is Windows.

• A. 0
• B. 1
• C. 2
• D. 3

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION # 49
Andre, a security professional, was tasked with segregating the employees' names, phone numbers, and credit card numbers before sharing the database with clients. For this purpose, he implemented a deidentification technique that can replace the critical information in database fields with special characters such as asterisks (*) and hashes (#).
Which of the following techniques was employed by Andre in the above scenario?

• A. Masking
• B. Hashing
• C. Tokenization
• D. Bucketing

Answer: A

Explanation:
Masking is the technique that Andre employed in the above scenario. Masking is a deidentification technique that can replace the critical information in database fields with special characters such as asterisks (*) and hashes (#). Masking can help protect sensitive data from unauthorized access or disclosure, while preserving the format and structure of the original data . Tokenization is a deidentification technique that can replace the critical information in database fields with random tokens that have no meaning or relation to the original data. Hashing is a deidentification technique that can transform the critical information in database fields into fixed-length strings using a mathematical function. Bucketing is a deidentification technique that can group the critical information in database fields into ranges or categories based on certain criteria.

NEW QUESTION # 50
Omar, an encryption specialist in an organization, was tasked with protecting low-complexity applications such as RFID tags, sensor-based applications, and other IbT-based applications. For this purpose, he employed an algorithm for all lower-powered devices that used less power and resources without compromising device security.
identify the algorithm employed by Omar in this scenario.

• A. Quantum cryptography
• B. Elliptic curve cryptography
• C. Homomorphic encryption
• D. Lightweight cryptography

Answer: D

Explanation:
Lightweight cryptography is an algorithm that is designed for low-complexity applications such as RFID tags, sensor-based applications, and other IoT-based applications. Lightweight cryptography uses less power and resources without compromising device security. Lightweight cryptography can be implemented using symmetric-key algorithms, asymmetric-key algorithms, or hash functions1.

NEW QUESTION # 51
in a security incident, the forensic investigation has isolated a suspicious file named "security_update.exe". You are asked to analyze the file in the Documents folder of the "Attacker Machine-1" to determine whether it is malicious. Analyze the suspicious file and identify the malware signature. (Practical Question)

• A. KLEZ
• B. Stuxnet
• C. Conficker
• D. ZEUS

Answer: B

Explanation:
Stuxnet is the malware signature of the suspicious file in the above scenario. Malware is malicious software that can harm or compromise the security or functionality of a system or network. Malware can include various types, such as viruses, worms, trojans, ransomware, spyware, etc. Malware signature is a unique pattern or characteristic that identifies a specific malware or malware family. Malware signature can be used to detect or analyze malware by comparing it with known malware signatures in databases or repositories. To analyze the suspicious file and identify the malware signature, one has to follow these steps:
Navigate to Documents folder of Attacker Machine-1.
Right-click on security_update.exe file and select Scan with VirusTotal option.
Wait for VirusTotal to scan the file and display the results.
Observe the detection ratio and details.
The detection ratio is 59/70, which means that 59 out of 70 antivirus engines detected the file as malicious. The details show that most antivirus engines detected the file as Stuxnet, which is a malware signature of a worm that targets industrial control systems (ICS). Stuxnet can be used to sabotage or damage ICS by modifying their code or behavior. Therefore, Stuxnet is the malware signature of the suspicious file. KLEZ is a malware signature of a worm that spreads via email and network shares. KLEZ can be used to infect or overwrite files, disable antivirus software, or display fake messages. ZEUS is a malware signature of a trojan that targets banking and financial systems. ZEUS can be used to steal or modify banking credentials, perform fraudulent transactions, or install other malware. Conficker is a malware signature of a worm that exploits a vulnerability in Windows operating systems. Conficker can be used to create a botnet, disable security services, or download other malware

NEW QUESTION # 52
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